xi are non-negative integers. Prove that x1! x2! ... xn! ≥ ( [(x1 + ... + xn)/n] ! )n (where [y] denotes the largest integer not exceeding y). When do you have equality?
Solution
Answer: Equality iff all xi equal.
For given 2m the largest binomial coefficient is (2m)!/(m! m!) and for 2m+1 the largest binomial coefficient is (2m+1)!/( m! (m+1)!). Hence for fixed xi + xj the smallest value of xi! xj! is for xi and xj as nearly equal as possible.
If x1 + x2 + ... + xn = qn + r, where 0 < r < n, then we can reduce one or more xi to reduce the sum to qn. This will not affect the rhs of the inequality in the question, but will reduce the lhs. Equalising the xi will not increase the lhs (by the result just proved). So it is sufficient to prove the inequality for all xi equal. But in this case it is trivial since k! = k! .
© John Scholes
jscholes@kalva.demon.co.uk
11 Apr 2002